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Philadiddle Community Member 111 posts since
Aug 14, 2009
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30. Jan 21, 2010 9:25 AM in response to: Lou
Re: What is a Biblical Worldview?

Lou wrote:

 

Why do intellectually accept, without-a-doubt the miracles of Jesus; but have issues with the miracle that the Sun "stood still" at the request of Joshua?

I think there is a misunderstanding about what I was trying to say.  I'm not denying that the event of the longer day happened.  What I'm talking about is how it can be interpreted scientifically.  Martin Luther was pointing out that scripture says the sun stood still, which taken literally means it is the sun that moves around the earth.  He was using his literal interpretation of scripture to argue against science.  He was wrong.  The events may have happened but they were written from the perspective of an ancient cosmology and when we try to use passages as a literal guide for scientific inquiry we fail to see the deeper meaning that scripture contains.

How do you honestly determine when to take scripture literally or figuratively?

There are several questions to ask:

 

- How was it written?  What are the literary devices used?  (Is it poetic?  Is it a letter to a church? etc)

 

- What did the words, in their original context mean to people at that time?  For example, the number seven represented completeness.  So in some contexts it literally means "seven" whereas in other contexts it is an adjective that means "in its fullness" even though the word itself still literally means "seven".

 

- Is a literal interpretation necessary for the meaning to be true?

 

- What can I learn from theologians?  (those who have spent their lives trying to understand and explain the scriptures)

 

Are you really struggling with the interpretation of scripture (i.e. understanding context, biblical grammar, linguistics, theological hermeneutics)

Nope.  I'm not saying I understand everything, I'm still learning like everyone else is.  But there is nothing in particular that I "struggle" with.

 

are you honestly struggling with other conflicting worldviews (i.e. naturalism, Darwinian Evolutionism, etc.)?

From my understanding of your question, I'm not struggling with them.  I understand and accept evolution, although I still have a theistic worldview.  If I'm not answering your question, maybe you could clarify what you mean by "struggling".

In a biblical worldview, the rule of interpretation is that a passage is to be considered literal until proven figurative.

To better understand why you would think this I have a few question.

 

1) According to who?

 

2) Why would we assume that it is literal until proven otherwise?

 

3) What would it take to "prove" that a passage is figurative?

So if you take the passage in Joshua 10, it should read like simple, historical narration.  It was indeed a miracle  Joshua prayed for divine assistance, and he received it.

 

I agree, it was a miracle that really happened. I would also like to point out that by failing to see the ancient cosmology behind the context of the language used, it can be misinterpreted to support the scientific claim that the sun revolves around the earth. This passage explains the faithfulness of Joshua and the reliability and power of God.  There is no intention here to make a scientific statement about the physical world.

 

An accurate biblical worldview would present an omnipotent God.   If God is capable of speaking the entire Universe into existence, I would think that he could indeed help Joshua because God has the power to stop the Earth, Moon, and Sun, and still maintain every other type of order in the Universe, even if it's beyond our limited "21st century scientific" understanding.

I agree.

Dr_Strangelove Community Member 64 posts since
Nov 2, 2009
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31. Jan 21, 2010 9:34 AM in response to: Desicess
Re: What is a Biblical Worldview?

By reading the first passage that you have posted I have a question.  Did God literally not spare the angels when they sinned, but cast them into hell and committed them to pits of darkness, reserved for judgment?  I ask this because if God did not literally do this then how can we ever make sense of this passage?

 

I am a bit confused by your use of the word "literal".  By "literal" do you mean physical?  Or can something non-physical (i.e. spiritual) also be literal?  Hell, as I understand it, is not a physical place, but a spiritual one (where souls dwell, not bodies).

 

By reading the second passage I have another question.  Did the serpent literally beguiled Eve through his subtility?  If Paul is talking about a non-literal Eve and non-literal serpent what is Paul literally talking about?

 

It was probably spiritual, so a spiritual beguiling.  You can use metaphor and allegory to talk about spiritual things such as sin, which is what I think Genesis and Paul do.

 

So "nephesh" (or the other word as pointed out in the other posts): "means you will begin to die, die, and continue to die."  Okay, so far so good, the word means to die, now: "So when Adam bit the apple, he began to die (physically) and he died (spiritually) and he continues to die (physically and spiritually)."  Okay, in the very next sentence you lost me.  How do you draw the conclusion that he died both physically and spiritually instead of just one or the other?  You just said that "nephesh" means to "begin to die, die and continue to die", but in the definition that you wrote it does not specify one kind of death over another.  Please elaborate how "nephesh", or the actual word from that passage, means both spiritual and physical death.  When I read Genesis I see most of it as an allegory of the soul and man's falling into a state of sin, not physical falling/dying.

 

Did you know that Dictionaries also portray a foundational worldview through definitions establishing a system of values that may or may not be compatible with a Christian Biblical worldview?  That is why objectivity in words and language are very important tools when establishing a personal worldview.

 

A good point, and this illustrate the fluidity of language.  There has been a lot of confusions about definitions in these forums, and that is because there is often no universally accepted "true" definition of most words!

 

Message was edited by: TTPAdmin1

Desicess Community Member 107 posts since
Sep 15, 2009
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32. Jan 21, 2010 1:44 PM in response to: Dr_Strangelove
Re: What is a Biblical Worldview?

By reading the first passage that you have posted I have a question.  Did God literally not spare the angels when they sinned, but cast them into hell and committed them to pits of darkness, reserved for judgment?  I ask this because if God did not literally do this then how can we ever make sense of this passage?

 

I am a bit confused by your use of the word "literal".  By "literal" do you mean physical?  Or can something non-physical (i.e. spiritual) also be literal?  Hell, as I understand it, is not a physical place, but a spiritual one (where souls dwell, not bodies).

 

By literal I am talking about a literal event in history.  So let me re-phrase the question Was there a literal event in history when God did not spare the angels when they sinned, but cast them into hell and committed them to pits of darkness, reserved for judgment?  I ask this because if this event was not a literal historical event how can we ever make sense of it literally?  And as for Hell, it will be a physical place for physical bodies in the end.

 

By reading the second passage I have another question.  Did the serpent literally beguiled Eve through his subtility?  If Paul is talking about a non-literal Eve and non-literal serpent what is Paul literally talking about?

 

It was probably spiritual, so a spiritual beguiling.  You can use metaphor and allegory to talk about spiritual things such as sin, which is what I think Genesis and Paul do.

 

Could you please tell me how you came to define sin as rebellion? Is that your idea or someone else’s idea? I’ve even heard some people define sin as “a lack of self-esteem.” On what basis have you determined sin means rebellion? Where did you get that definition?

 

To see what I am drawing to by asking these questions read this article:

 

http://www.answersingenesis.org/home/area/wwtl/chapter2.asp

 

So "nephesh" (or the other word as pointed out in the other posts): "means you will begin to die, die, and continue to die."  Okay, so far so good, the word means to die, now: "So when Adam bit the apple, he began to die (physically) and he died (spiritually) and he continues to die (physically and spiritually)."  Okay, in the very next sentence you lost me.  How do you draw the conclusion that he died both physically and spiritually instead of just one or the other?  You just said that "nephesh" means to "begin to die, die and continue to die", but in the definition that you wrote it does not specify one kind of death over another.  Please elaborate how "nephesh", or the actual word from that passage, means both spiritual and physical death.  When I read Genesis I see most of it as an allegory of the soul and man's falling into a state of sin, not physical falling/dying.

 

In the beginning God made a perfect world with no death (physical and spiritual).  The moment Adam sinned, death (physical and spiritual) entered the world.  When Adam sinned his physical body started to die (aging), he instantaneuosly spiritually died (Cut off from the source of life God) thus beginning spiritual death as well, he continually dies physically (aging), he continually remained in spiritual death (Cut of from the source of life God), and in time he will die physically.  Every moment that a person physically lives is another moment closer to his/her physical death.  Every moment that a person lives disconnected from God is another moment he/she remains dead spiritually.  If you still cannot see the connection, then read the article on my previous post.

Dr_Strangelove Community Member 64 posts since
Nov 2, 2009
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33. Jan 28, 2010 1:50 PM in response to: Desicess
Re: What is a Biblical Worldview?

By literal I am talking about a literal event in history.  So let me re-phrase the question Was there a literal event in history when God did not spare the angels when they sinned, but cast them into hell and committed them to pits of darkness, reserved for judgment?  I ask this because if this event was not a literal historical event how can we ever make sense of it literally?  And as for Hell, it will be a physical place for physical bodies in the end.

 

Yes, God literally cast the angels into hell when they sinned.  I think that angels are spiritual beings and sin is a spiritual act, and also that hell is a spiritual place.  But why do you think that non-eternal bodies would rest in an eternal place (assuming you believe hell is an eternal place and bodies are non-eternal)? (I am sure there is some scripture that you are probably referring to, but I cannot think of any off the top of my head)

 

I have been reading a little about allegorical interpretations of the Bible to understand them a little better.  One of the main arguments is that Genesis (indeed all of the Bible) was written in a way that the people of the time could understand.  Today we read "the pillars of the earth" or "the sun stood still" and might say "that was metaphor or allegory, not literal".  But at the time, some of these erroneous beliefs about the earth, sun, stars, etc. were common among people of the Middle East (including Jews).  So to them these probably made perfect and literal sense, given the context of their knowledge about the world.  Another example, this time from the New Testament, is the parable of the mustard seed.  Jesus calls it "the least of all seeds", but today we know that there are other seeds that are smaller.  But if we consider his audience - Jews 2000 years ago - that was the smallest seed that they had or knew of, so the parable made perfect sense to them.

 

As far as the times when Jesus refers to the Old Testament and creation as literal historical events, I would say the same thing: he is speaking to people that had those ideas about cosmology, geology, etc., so to them his statements made perfect sense.  So going back to "natural reading", shouldn't this context be considered as well when reading the Bible?  You probably disagree about Genesis being written with the ideas of the people of the time, but how then do you reconcile Jesus's apparently false claim that the mustard seed is the smallest if you disregard that it was said in the context of the ideas and knowledge of the time?

 

I see Genesis, indeed much of the Bible, as allegory about the nature and will of God, the breaking of our relationship with him, and finally our reconciliation to him.  "The tree of knowledge of good and evil" is sometimes translated as "the tree of conscience".  We are not born knowing good and evil, but we learn, and eventually we become conscious of what is good and evil.  So perhaps in growing up we fall away from God, because at a certain age we become conscience of good and evil.  Anyway, just a little idea I had while reading a bit.  I haven't thought those middle sentences all the way through, but I thought it could be an interesting way of thinking about that part of Genesis.

 

Could you please tell me how you came to define sin as rebellion? Is that your idea or someone else’s idea? I’ve even heard some people define sin as “a lack of self-esteem.” On what basis have you determined sin means rebellion? Where did you get that definition?


Sin is acting (or thinking, a spiritual "action") against the will of God, so in the sense that it is against God's will I would call it rebellion.  We see this many times in the Bible: people ignoring God's will and sometimes even outrightly contradicting it, and they are punished for it.

 

In the beginning God made a perfect world with no death (physical and spiritual).  The moment Adam sinned, death (physical and spiritual) entered the world… … …If you still cannot see the connection, then read the article on my previous post.

 

Ahh, okay I see, this was a fault on my part.  I forgot to consider your view that the world was perfect before the fall (physically and spiritually), so of course it would follow that the death that came after the fall was both kinds.

Philadiddle Community Member 111 posts since
Aug 14, 2009
Currently Being Moderated
35. Jan 31, 2010 2:28 PM in response to: Lou
Re: What is a Biblical Worldview?

Lou wrote:

 

It's a misconception to think that the 16th century church (or Martin Luther) were the "primary authority" to interpret a geocentric model of the universe.  History demonstrates that it was most astronomers, scientists and natural philosophers (i.e. Greeks, Muslims and Christians) of that period who held to a Ptolemaic system based on ancient Greek astronomy.
However, the description in Joshua 10 clearly demonstrates that God (i.e. the supernatural) can intervene in the affairs of this universe without a naturalistic or scientific explanation.  So if the Sun "stood still"… all we can say is that God did it (based on this historical event captured in our trustworthy bible).

I think that you are still misunderstanding me.  I am agree with you that the sun "stood still".  What I'm saying is that the phrasing "stood still" was written from the perspective of the ancient Hebrews who thought that it was the sun that moved around the earth.  Therefore, a strict literal (natural) interpretation would support a geocentric model.  This is exaclty what the church has done in the past.

Lou wrote:

 

Even in our limited "21st century scientific" understanding, the view of a heliocentric model in a strict sense is incorrect.  According to the theory of relativity, all motion is relative where neither the sun, the earth, nor any reference point can be considered absolutely motionless.

 

Relativity is concerned with relative motion.  When looking at the earth relative to the sun, it is the earth that revolves around the sun.  The sun is moving relative to other stars because the universe is expanding.  But this point doesn't really affect what we are talking about.

 

Is a literal interpretation necessary for the meaning to be true?

My simple answer to your direct question is simply YES!  It would be incoherent and intellectually dishonest to accept "theological truths" without accepting the direct association to their literal historical truths.

So the truths that Jesus explained through parables are actually historically accurate stories?  Or was Jesus lying?  I always thought that parables weren't literal history, but you can explain why I'm wrong if you like.

 

The intention of the question I asked was to look at each passage on a case by case basis.  Making a blanket statement such as yours just doesn't work.


What can I learn from theologians?  (those who have spent their lives trying to understand and explain the scriptures)

There are various things that you can learn from theologians.  They are meant to be guides and subject matter experts based on their scholarly work in such topics like Biblical hermeneutics, Expository method of learning, Greek and Hebrew interpretation, Biblical history, Biblical anthropology, Apologetics, etc. etc.

Exactly, and that is where my understanding of a figurative creation account comes from.  It wasn't an offhand conjecture that I made up on my own.

 


In a biblical worldview, the rule of interpretation is that a passage is to be considered literal until proven figurative.

 

1) According to who?

One reason we should take the Bible literally is because the Lord Jesus Christ and his disciples took it literally.  Whenever Jesus quoted from the Old Testament, it was always clear that He believed in its literal interpretation.

It is your opinion that it is "clear".  This particular topic would require a much more thorough explanation on my part so I'll come back to it in a later thread.


2) Why would we assume that it is literal until proven otherwise?

Because that is how the author(s) intended to communicate and to be read naturally and straightforward.

Sometimes a "natural" reading can lead us astray because we fail to see the deeper meaning behind it.  There are a lot of references to things that were important or symbolic to those people at those time.  Taking the bible and reading it like a newspaper is what critics do.  Just search the web for criticisms of the bible and you will find page after page of "naturally read" scriptures that appear to be erroneous.  However, most of those critics can be answered by looking beyond a "natural" reading.  Putting the bible in the context of the culture, including cosmology, trade systems, the meaning of numbers, and even myths from surrounding cultures is where we should start.  In the same way that you think man is fallable at interpretting nature, man is so much more fallable at interpretting a document from thousands of years ago so a "natural" newspaper style reading of the bible is certainly not a good starting point.


 

3) What would it take to "prove" that a passage is figurative?

Although we should take the Bible literally, there are sections that contain non-literal figures of speech, poetic language or prophetic symbology.
We should also learn how to identify and distinguish between historical narrative styles and the doctrinal teachings by the straightforward way that it's written.
This is where you can refer to a scholar/theologian when you run into doubts or concerns.

 

 

So what if the creation account and flood account are poetic styles that don't represent how a historical text would have been written?  What if they are full of symbolism that is meaningful to that culture at that day in non-scientific ways?  What if scholars understand the creation/flood accounts to be figurative because of the way they are written, and the context of the surrounding cultures?

 

God bless,

 

Phil

Philadiddle Community Member 111 posts since
Aug 14, 2009
Currently Being Moderated
36. Jan 31, 2010 2:26 PM in response to: Lou
Re: What is a Biblical Worldview?

 

Desicess offers a more detailed explanation in this other post.  I highly recommend it.

 


I don't respond to plagiarized posts.  It makes it appear as though he's put a lot more into the conversation than he actually has.  If I'm going to spend time responding to a post I want to respond to someone who has been putting their own time into this.  (This is especially true if a post is pawned off as their own work when it was just cut and paste).

 

You will find that post #10 on that thread is originally from here:

http://www.answersingenesis.org/home/area/feedback/2006/0804.asp

(scroll down and you'll find it)

 

Post #8 about the natural reading of scripture is from "The Ultimate Proof of Creation: Resolving the Origins Debate" By Dr Jason Lisle

(starting on page 175)

 

Phil,  I have deleted the offending posts, and have warned Desicess about the importance of citing borrowed passages.  If it happens again (since you first noticed this), then I will ban him (or anyone else who reposts work not their own without citation).

 

For now, I must assume he understands, and I suggest we just drop it.

 

TTPAdmin1

Desicess Community Member 107 posts since
Sep 15, 2009
Currently Being Moderated
37. Feb 1, 2010 8:45 AM in response to: Philadiddle
Re: What is a Biblical Worldview?

Phil and TTPAdmin,

 

I apologize for not citing the posts I will remember to place them with the post next time.  Phil the reason why I posted articles is for you to read them.  I remember posting with you months ago and I remember you were extremely bias against YEC and AiG.  I was not sure if you would even bother reading any articles from their cite.  But if you are open to read some of those articles I am glad.  I have read alot of your articles as well and I will not accept them.  My decision to know and accept YEC as true is more than an intellectual decision, but it was a moral decision.  I know that if I do not accept God's Word as true and inerrant then I am taking what He said and making it my own.  I know that if I make His Word my own then I set myself on a pedastal above Him.  You have an issue with pride.  You will not budge for no one.  You do not have a biblical worldview you have Phil's worldview.

 

Respectfully,

 

Desicess

FirstBTP Community Member 5 posts since
Feb 4, 2010
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40. Mar 11, 2010 7:59 AM in response to: Lou
Re: What is a Biblical Worldview?

Chuck Colson and Nancy Pearcy wrote an excelent book How Now Shall We Live?  In this book they cite numerous stories of how a Biblical Worldview changes prisons, neighborhoods, families, Dr./patient relationships. The point they make is our worldview is what will influence our spheres of influence. As christians we should be reflecting Christs viewpoint,ie., love our neighbors.

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